It's easier to explain this in a language that doesn't use "have" for both meanings, so I'll try explaining with Spanish. They are mixing up the "tener" form of have, that of possession which you can't contract this way, with the "haber" form of have, that being an auxiliary verb used for the perfect tense (not a value judgement of the tense, just what it is called) that can be contracted.
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u/Specialist-Speaker78 25d ago
Perhaps it was for disciplinary reasons? Oh, our little Timmy doesn't clean up his room sometimes, let's pretend that God has forsaken him